Please excuse any typos
Hi all,
I (28M) have an interesting ethics question and would love some insight.
I am heterosexual and have been occasionally experimenting with anal play on myself lately. I’ve maybe used a toy and a finger back there a handful or times over the last few months and have previously had a tongue back there.
I have three regular sexual partners (six if I’m including women I see when I visit their cities). All cis-women. I have only received anal (tongue) from those partners in different cities several months ago, both of whom were clean. I do not engage in anal play with my current partners in my city. I use protection with all but one of them.
I recently got tested as I generally try to go every three months. Unfortunately, I was informed that I tested positive for chlamydia.
Here is the issue: I took oral, genital, and anal STI tests and only the anal chlamydia test came back positive. I tested negative orally and on my genitals. I’m not entirely sure how I would have contracted it since my other partners were clean. Maybe I got it from a toy?
In my head, this seems to suggest that I have anal chlamydia, but I don’t have it else where. I should obviously tell anyone with whom I’ve done anal stuff with, but should I tell my remaining partners, particularly the three near me, if we have never done anything anally?
One the one hand, if there is a possibility they could be infected, they should definitely know. On the other hand, it seems highly unlikely for them to have been infected if I only have it anally and we never play thay way. I’d rather not tell them and get treated if its the case that they have virtually no risk of exposure (though I’m leaning towards and probably will just tell them if for no other reason because its kind of funny).
What does everyone think?